Re: Two Types of Distributions Found In Nature



We need a reference that suggests average mean only applies to normal distributions.
Right now we have _one and only one_ distribution out of the jillions found in Nature that is unique in that the median value is meaningful but the ave. mean value is meaningless.
Bret Cahill
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Such as in IQ tests?

Interesting. I wonder if there isn't at least one more such case. Let's see.... race and jail terms. There's one. No?
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On 10/30/2007 17:40:42 "pico" <pico.pico.pico> wrote:

I think the disparity in the U.S.A. in sentencing between those smoking crack and those snorting powder cocaine is an evil. And given the race and class of those likely to be found doing either - this is shown in statistics - this relationship between race and jail terms does not support those who don't seem to think the U.S.A. can be improved. There have even been prison riots on this point.
I'm fairly convinced there are other issues about race and jail terms that those leaning left would be quite willing to discuss.
But this all seems a distraction from Bret's point.
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wrote:

Actually, Robert, it's all part of a related pattern. Control and power through any and all means possible. Wealth, the prison system, the media etc. Take everything, give nothing. The American way.
I'd move to Denmark or Finland in a second if I had citizenship there. America is EVIL!!!!
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The Supremes are scheduled to take that ruling on soon, aren't they?
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Before I thought IQ couldn't be a normal distribution because some have IQs above 200 while no one, I thought, could have a negative IQ.
Then I became acquained with newsgroups rightards.
Maybe IQ _is_ a normal distribution.

Only if you are a complete idiot.
Bret Cahill
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In our last episode,
the lovely and talented ta broadcast on alt.politics:

A normal distribution is generally described as "bell shaped." In a normal distribution, the mean, the median, and the mode are all the same.
The distribution of incomes is an exaggerated reverse J shape, which is to say, almost everyone makes almost nothing, and almost no one makes almost everything.
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I think that is exactly Bret's point. The rich don't really want the poor to know that.
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Actually I'm like the little dog Toto in _Wizard of Oz_.
All I do is pull back the curtain and let others make the conclusions.
Bret Cahill
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That hardly implies these quantities don't exist in other distributions.

The delta function is zero everywhere except one point where it is infinite.
Bret Cahill
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lovely and talented sinister broadcast on alt.politics:

Modern economic doctrine is that wealth is used to produce income, so largely the distribution of wealth and the distribution of income are merely two ways of looking at the same thing. Indeed, the distributions are very similar and so skewed that is difficult to work with them at all except on logrithmic scales. See pareto distribution.
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No. The distribution of wealth is more skewed.
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wrote:

Of course the distribution of wealth is more skewed than annual income. Wealth accumulates over time! While the mean anuual family income is close to double the median -- over seventy thousand dollars vs. about forty thousand dollars -- the median family wealth is only one hundred thousand dollars, while the mean is close to half a million!
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wrote:

No, they are not. The distribution of wealth is far more unequal, and goes into negative numbers at the low end.

The Pareto distribution is much more equal than the current distribution of wealth in the USA.
-- Roy L
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LOL!
There are three classical factors of production: (1) Labor (2) Capital (3) Land
Labor doesn't stem from wealth, because the income potential in a human being cannot be capitalized.

Aside from the points the other posters made about the distributions on the whole, income and wealth certainly bear no relationship at the _bottom_; there are plenty of people with no wealth, indeed negative wealth, who earn income via labor. Something called "wages". You might have heard of that concept.

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Nonsense. We will discuss it until the sky falls if you like.
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I like so we are now going to discuss why you ain't making the average mean income which is total income divided by total hours worked, i. e., $60/hr in the U. S.
There are three and only 3 answers:
1. You is dumber or lazier than average.
2. You is gittin' ripped off.
3. both of the above
Bret Cahill
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Wrong. That isn't how you calculate an average mean.
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How would you calculate it? It might be a fairly meaningless statistic, but I don't see any problem with its calculation. And he refuses to disclose anything about his statistic except the above. Trucker has guessed that he is using GDP as total income. Of course, by that statistic, a very large proportion of Americans (anyone on unemployment or other form of welfare, retirees, any child with a passbook savings account, homemakers who have any savings or investments, anyone whose salary is over about $50K to $60K, etc. is likely to have mean income of over $60/hr.
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You calculate the mean by adding a series of number x1 + x2 + ........xn and then dividing by n.
If anyone does 0 hours of work and has any income (which millions of people do) then their income per hour is infinite.And since you can't add infinite numbers together, you can't calculate the mean.
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